perbeef
User
Guru
| Posts: 204 |   |
Karma: 0
|
A Question for Tournament Arbiters - 2006/07/03 02:16
Here's a hypothetical situation:
'A' and 'B' are playing. 'A' can force mate in one move by moving his knight to a square X, but 'A' has only one second remaining before he would lose by time forfeit. In his haste to move, 'A' drops his knight so that it falls upright with *exactly* half of its base on square X and half of its base on an adjacent square (which would represent an illegal move for the knight).
Then his flag falls before he's able to adjust his move or to press the clock.
'A' claims: "I won the game because my *clearly evident intent* was to move the knight to square X, and 'checkmate ends the game' So the fact that my flag fell *after* the game had ended does *not* alter its result--my win."
'B' claims: "I won the game on time because my opponent did *not unambiguously complete his legal move* of the knight to square X before his flag fell.
My opponent's claim of his 'clearly evident intent' is irrelevant because the game must be won--which it was not--by making unambiguously legal moves on the board, not by making a claim of his 'intent' afterward."
A mathematician spectator claims: "It seems to me that 'expected value' of the actual knight's move was 1/2 (50% chance of scoring one point by making the mating move; 50% chance of scoring no points by making an illegal move.).
So this game should be adjudicated as a draw!"
A kibitzer claims: "No, no, no, all draws are boring and should be eliminated!
Let's settle this dispute fairly by flipping a coin--that's more exciting!"
So what's the correct ruling?.
---------
Life is a fatal complaint, and an eminently contagious one.
Popular posts by perbeef
Mensa mentioned in Chess Book
Rubinstein's Wartime Experiences...
Spassky
|
post new topic
